An eighth comment on Ricci’s strange argument on MELT …

In this monograph, Ricci doesn’t appear to realize what it is he must explain to his reader. He really has no idea what question he needs to answer.

Instead, at one point we are forced to endure his silly take on David Graeber’s silly take on the alleged history of money as debt, in order to establish that anything can be money:

“Modern anthropological research has shown that the medium of circulation in primitive societies was represented by precious objects of various kinds, having the character of rare and non-reproducible goods, such as pearls, fish teeth, salt, or shells. In this case, the exchange ratio of this “primitive” money, acting as an intermediary in trade with other social groups, resulted from its scarcity rather than from the costs of production in terms of human labour. In the history of humankind, the function of the medium of circulation has been played by the most varied commodities selected on the basis of their material qualities (durability, divisibility, homogeneity) or even their symbolic, social, and sometimes magical properties.”

Notice, here, that Ricci conveniently ignores the primary function of money, described by Marx, to express the value of commodities. He promptly skips over this primary function of money and moves directly to its secondary function as medium of circulation.

Having confined his observation solely to the function of money as medium of circulation, Ricci then appends his own observation that,

“In capitalist societies, in which a disenchanted and utilitarian vision of the world prevailed, the purely material and physical properties of the object predominated, and therefore, the function of medium of circulation was historically assumed by precious metals. Gold became the universal intermediary of exchanges in the early stages of capitalism on the basis of a process of natural selection, replacing all other commodities competing for this function because of its peculiar physical characteristics.”

Following which, Ricci then makes a startling assertion:

“When this happened, the prevailing use of gold served as the general equivalent of exchanges rather than as a luxury good. The simple social act of placing a commodity as the medium of circulation, universally accepted on the market, determines at the same time its use value. Consequently, even an object lacking any use value of its own acquires the use value of general equivalent when it is socially accepted as money.”

So, the use value of money is reduced to a mere medium of exchange. And what happened to its primary function, that of expressing the value of commodities? Is this function, identified by Marx in his theory as the “first chief function of money”, lost completely? Or, is it rather that Ricci believes that such a function never existed in the first place?

No matter.

As a result of the reduction of the use-value of gold to mere medium of circulation, and contrary to Marx, Ricci tells us that gold itself now acquires a price:

“Moreover, when an object with a use value is not freely and gratuitously available, it also becomes an object of market exchange.”

So, there you have it:

  1. As medium for circulation of commodities, anything can be, and has been, money;
  2. in the capitalist mode of production, a luxury item, precious metals, became medium of exchange because of their peculiar properties;
  3. this transition reduced gold from luxury item to a mere medium of circulation;
  4. as medium of circulation, gold, a thing with value, could be replaced by a token of itself, a thing having neither value nor use-value but to serve as a replacement for gold as medium of circulation;
  5. the displacement of gold from its function as medium of circulation (again, what happened to that other function?) by its token led to gold acquiring a price denominated in its token.

Ricci concludes:

“For these reasons, it was possible to replace gold as the medium of circulation with a legal tender currency, fiat money, whose forced circulation is socially imposed by the state by virtue of a law obligation. Fiat money is a commodity that appears ex novo on the basis of a state decision and replaces gold in the social monopoly of money. Its use value and exchange value are created in the very act of its institution as money, and outside of this function, it is devoid of any use value and exchange value. When this happens, the function of money as medium of circulation, previously performed by a capitalist commodity such as gold, is now performed by a non-capitalist commodity such as fiduciary money devoid of intrinsic value issued by the State in a monopoly regime.”

Bravo! Bravo!!

This is really an amazing performance by a guy who is a proven innovator.

Um, only … uh, I hate to ask this, to throw cold water on this performance … but …

Okay, I’m just going to blurt it out: who cares about this real or imagined history of money? I mean, the really important question we all want to know is what happened to that other function of money that Ricci prefers to ignore.

Why, after serving to express the value of commodities for millennia since ancient Mesopotamia, did all the commodity monies disappear from the world market after 1929?

Can you just explain that, Ricci?

What does modern anthropology and your ‘anything can be a medium of circulation’ theory tell you about that shit?

If anything can be money, why is it that the one thing that has been money for 5,000 years no longer can be money anywhere on this planet?

Since this change does not result from the function of money as medium of circulation, is it just possible that it might result from that other function, missing from this fascinating discussion: namely, to express the value of other commodities in an exchange?

Now why would that be?

12 thoughts on “An eighth comment on Ricci’s strange argument on MELT …”

  1. You: “Why, after serving to express the value of commodities for millennia since ancient Mesopotamia, did all the commodity monies disappear from the world market after 1929?”

    Marx: “It has become apparent in the course of our presentation that value, which appeared as an abstraction, is possible only as such an abstraction, as soon as money is posited; this circulation of money in turn leads to capital, hence can be fully developed only on the foundation of capital, just as, generally, only on this foundation can circulation seize hold of all moments of production. This development, therefore, not only makes visible the historic character of forms, such as capital, which belong to a specific epoch of history; but also, [in its course] categories such as value, which appear as purely abstract, show the historic foundation from which they are abstracted, and on whose basis alone they can appear, therefore, in this abstraction; and categories which belong more or less to all epochs, such as e.g. money, show the historic modifications which they undergo. The economic concept of value does not occur in antiquity. Value distinguished only juridically from pretium, against fraud etc. The concept of value is entirely peculiar to the most modern economy, since it is the most abstract expression of capital itself and of the production resting on it. In the concept of value, its secret betrayed.” Grundrisse 776

    Clearly -like so clearly you cannot contort these words to suit your ill-begotten purposes – you and Marx disagree. Value is a social form that comes into being with modern society. So money did not express the value of commodities in Mesopotamia. Goods solds as commodities, as use-values for others, were not reduced to abstract units of homogenous human labor. Production did not generally (ie universally) take this social (ie the commodity) form, which is of the necessary conditions for value to emerge. Production was generally based on a different social relation. Money did express the exchange-value of goods sold, that is, a quantitative ratio determined within circulation and not based on production. But, qualitatively, money lacked the ‘historical basis’ to serve as a universal general equivalent. In other words, money was not the form of appearance (or expression) of value in ancient times.

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    1. Marshall, read this entry on the shekel: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shekel

      In the entry, you will see that the word means, “to weigh”. It began as a unit of wieght. As applied to money, 10 shekels became the standard payment for a years labor for an unskilled workers as early as 1800 B.C. By 539 B.C., this wage had risen to 2 shekels per month.

      Further, the shekel was a term in common usage in bronze-age Europe (3200 B.C.), According to the entry. It was used both as a unit of weight and as a unit of money.

      Now, value — the abstract concept — likely could not arise until we get to the rise of capitalism. But note, that is the abstract concept of value. We are not talking about an ‘concept’ in bronze-era Europe. The awareness of value as an abstract concept is merely a historical development. Before that, we are talking about the actual law of value, which, I would suggest, is something altogether different.

      To give an analogy: we were always subject to the law of gravity. At what point did mankind become aware of gravity as an abstract concept?

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      1. Gravity is a natural form. Value is a social form. The objectivity of gravity is transhistorical. The objectivity of value is socially conditioned. When the shekel in ancient Tyre was in use, the social conditions for production in the form of value was not in place.

        “But it is only foreign trade, the development of the market to a world market, which causes money to develop into world money and abstract labour into social labour. Abstract wealth, value, money, hence abstract labour, develop in the measure that concrete labour becomes a totality of different modes of labour embracing the world market. Capitalist production rests on the value or the transformation of the labour embodied in the product into social labour. But this is only [possible] on the basis of foreign trade and of the world market. This is at once the pre-condition and the result of capitalist production.” Theories of Surplus Value 253

        It cannot be stated any more clearly. Both “the condition and result of capitalist production.”

        And there’s this:

        “If the value of commodities is determined by the necessary labour-time contained in them and not simply by labour-time as such, it is capital that first makes a reality of this mode of determination and immediately goes on to reduce continually the labour socially necessary for the production of a commodity” Capital Vol. 3 180

        The naturalization of value (and wage labor…and capital) was something Marx harshly criticized the classical economists for doing. Unfortunately, this has not prevented many marxists from making the same mistake.

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      2. Marshall, Did Marx say Aristotle was unable to explain how qualitatively unlike use-values could be equated as values because “value was not in place”? Read it again.

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    2. Also Marshall, in support of my previous comment, please refer to Marx’s comment on Aristotle in chapter one, where Marx essentially makes the same point.

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      1. Also, I refer you this from vol 1 (fn 33)…

        The value form of the product of labour is not only the most abstract, but is also the most universal form, taken by the product in bourgeois production, and stamps that production as a particular species of social production, and thereby gives it its special historical character. If then we treat this mode of production as one eternally fixed by Nature for every state of society, we necessarily overlook that which is the differentia specifica of the value form, and consequently of the commodity form, and of its further developments, money form, capital form, &c.

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      2. Ah, “a particular species of social production”. For a minute i could swear you think Marx said “THE ONLY SPECIES OF SOCIAL PRODUCTION”.

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  2. Btw re:Aristotle’s/antiquity’s alleged lack of an *economic* concept of value:

    “We have seen that gold and silver cannot comply with the demand that as money they should have an invariable value. Their value is nevertheless more stable than that of other commodities on the average, as even Aristotle noted.” (Critique of Political Economy 1859 ).

    ^ Marx credits Aristotle with the ability to note the relative stability of the value of precious metals, which I think means that, in Marx’s mind, Aristotle lived under social conditions in which precious metals had a value. That is, for Marx, value did already exist in antiquity. I am not sure if Marshall speaks of ‘commodities’ and ‘money’ in antiquity, while denying the presence of value in them, but if that’s his position, then Marshall disagrees with Marx about the existence of value in antiquity. Marx continues to refer to antiquity and the existence of value:

    “The purely economic reasons of such changes in value [of precious metals] – conquests and other political upheavals, which exerted a substantial influence on the value of metals in Antiquity, have merely a local and temporary effect – must be attributed to changes in the labour-time required for the production of these metals.”

    ^ That is, the changes in value (or even if Marshall wants to interpret Marx as saying here merely ‘exchange-value’ – it doesn’t matter) are determined by “purely economic reasons”, namely by labor time, already in antiquity. I believe this is what is called the law of value.

    In the following chapter, Marx again dismisses the temporary effect of political conquests, etc. and asserts the supremacy of economic laws in antiquity. The operation of the general law regulating corn prices in Ancient Rome was not suspended by the existence of temporary fluctuations in supply (such as free distributions):

    “The sudden and forcible transfer of hoarded money from one country to another is a specific feature of the ancient world; but the temporary lowering of the production costs of precious metals achieved in a particular country by the simple method of plunder does not affect the inherent laws of monetary circulation, any more than, for instance, the distribution of Egyptian and Sicilian corn free of charge in Rome affects the general law which regulates corn prices.”

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  3. I can’t believe marxist naturalize, fetishize, and dehistoricize labor.

    You need to read what Marx wrote about Aristotle, who could not uncover the immanent measure of value, hidden within the value-form, because…let me quote myself from above:

    “Goods solds as commodities, as use-values for others, were not reduced to abstract units of homogenous human labor. Production did not generally (ie universally) take this social (ie the commodity) form, which is of the necessary conditions for value to emerge.”

    Now, let me quote Marx from vol. 1:

    “The secret of the expression of value, namely the equality and equivalence of of all kinds of labor because and in so far as they are human labor in general, could not be deciphered until the concept of human equality had already acquired a permanence of fixed popular opinion.”

    Why did the concept of equality, which is necessary for the concept of value to emerge, fail to find permanence in fixed popular opinion? Marx tells us in the next line:

    “This becomes possible only in a society where the commodity-form is the universal form of the product of labor, hence the dominant social relation is the relation between men as possessors of commodities.”

    You and Noa might not be able to understand what Marx is saying here because of your idealism.

    Concept and reality, form and content, coincide. Aristotle’s conceptual failure stemmed from the social (ie material) reality dominant during his time. Hence, the concept of value was not present because the commodity-form of production and exchange had not been universalized. Value lacked the necessary material, historical, and social conditions to emerge as a concept because there was no material reality for value to be a concept of. Different social conditions were necessary for the concept and reality, the form and content, of value to coincide.

    Labor had not yet become homogenous human labor in the social word (ie labor had not become a real abstraction, abstract labor). For bourgeois idealists, who radically split concepts and material reality – one existing completely in the head, the other existing completely outside the head – Marx is all but impossible to understand.


    As far as Marx quotes, I have produced ones were Marx explicitly rejects value in any other society than one with the characteristics of modern bourgeois society (see above TSV3 253). I can also produce quotes where “value” is used loosely by Marx when referring to pre-capitalist social forms. I’m sure Copernicus said the Sun rose, too. “Proof” does not lie in either set of quotes (alone). We have to look at the totality of what Marx wrote. If you understand the social and historical ground of value, then it should be obvious that only in modern society do the products of labor take the form of value, which is an abstraction from their material reality (ie a ‘purely social’ substance). Jehu, being a professed Postone guy, denying this is beyond ironic.

    If you want to speak of the law of value in “antediluvian form” in ancient society, then maybe. But, it does not really apply in the same way that merchant’s and userer’s capital were prefigurations of capital before capital actual emerged as a social reality.

    Metaphysicalizing value into a transhistorical law of nature present in every society makes Marx roll in his grave….this is incontrovertible.

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      1. Fiat dollars fetish SMH and LMAO… I actually appreciate your humor and your work…even tho I disagree with most of it.

        I’ll definitely read the post later tonight when I’m less strapped for time.

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